By AboutToBeHomeless - 03/11/2016 13:16
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How can he have any standing with a verbal lease? It is literally his word against yours.
In North America most verbal contracts (in this case, leases) have standing that defaults to the laws put in place. So if there's a law saying a landlord has the right to evict a tenant so long as they give 2 months notice, then the verbal agreement between the landlord and tenant must abide by that law. The point really is to make sure tenants and landlords are protected in cases like these. Grandfather rents to grandkid, then tries to kick them out claiming there was no written contract, well agreeing the rent-to-own was a verbal contract and therefore he cannot kick the kid out without notice.
here, I you pay rent for x amount of time, you have a lease. official.
Lawyer up. That's a huge amount of cash on the line. And one side cannot just decide to terminate a verbal agreement. It's not first come, first served with the law.