By moudly - 06/01/2010 21:28 - United States
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@11: If #1 can be rude about the OP's spelling, why can't #2 be rude back? Especially considering the fact that #2 actually has justification. OP is in the U.S. and thus, used the American way of spelling "mold." If anything, you should be going at #1 for being rude considering that #1 is the one who was wrong in the first place.