By LuckyLoser9 - 03/11/2011 15:44 - United States

Today, I found out that absentmindedly correcting my boss's use of the word "whom" could result in my immediate termination. FML
I agree, your life sucks 29 773
You deserved it 8 992

Same thing different taste

Comments

You're lame for knowing the difference between who and whom.

You're lame for calling some one who knows their grammar more than you.

HahaYDI 0

Could be considered insubordination, I suppose. You have to see it from both sides. Although firing you seems a tad extreme.

Yeah that's how grammar nazis deserve to be treated. If you're not asked for your opinion don't give it.

TheDrummingResul 0

Your post should actually read "misuse" not "use". Found it ironic.

braybo 0

I think it's funny you can comment on his use of whom but you don't realize it's boss' not boss's. Hahaha

Hahahahaha No. An apostraphe without an 's' after it is showing possession of a group of people (assuming the word is plural with an 's' at the end). For example: girls' washroom. Also, since the plural of boss is bosses, boss' would be gramatically incorrect in any situation.

leadman1989 15

It was the absent minded grammar nazi salute and heiling that freaked your JEWISH boss out a little bit!

I'm from France and i've never understand when to use it. If somebody could explain to me, would be greatful :)

"Who" / "whoever" must be used as a subject. "Whom" / "whomever" must be used as an object. A good rule of thumb: Decide whether you could substitute the pronoun above for "she" / "he" or "her" / "him." If you could substitute "she" / "he," use "who." If you could substitute "her" / "him," use "whom."

... or, a probably easier way to explain this to someone who speaks a European language is: "whom" is the accusative of "who". :o)